General Discussion
Related: Editorials & Other Articles, Issue Forums, Alliance Forums, Region ForumsIs it correct that if there had been a "formal impeachment inquiry vote" the biggest difference
would be that the Republicans would then also have subpoena rights, whereas now they do not?
dewsgirl
(14,961 posts)The House passed new rules regarding to subpoenas before Pelosi announced impeachment. It gave the Chairs of the committees the power to enforce subpoenas in court. Republicans are not Chairs and do not have that power. They may be able to hold a vote in their committees to subpoena someone, but it would have to pass the committee by vote and since Dems have the majority, they'll never get those through.
Atticus
(15,124 posts)would be "A" chair of "THE" committee as I understand how it proceeds. Would these "new rules" apply for this unique commmittee?
OliverQ
(3,363 posts)through the Judiciary committee since they are generally the committee that formerly writes Articles of Impeachment. But there is no Constitutional rule on how to do this, and Pelosi opted to give Adam Schiff and the Intelligence Committee point on this since so much of the crimes involve secret communications with foreign leaders.
StarfishSaver
(18,486 posts)Such a vote would simply authorize the conduct of an inquiry under the terms set
by the House. There's no requirement that the authorization limit an impeachment inquiry to one committee. The House could authorize multiple committees to conduct an inquiry.
Atticus
(15,124 posts)that also depend on what thos House passed?
StarfishSaver
(18,486 posts)Because in the past, when the House voted to open impeachment inquiries, the minority had subpoena authority, so they would claim that they should follow precedent (because precedent would suddenly matter ... go figure)
Atticus
(15,124 posts)evidence---not!
Grasswire2
(13,571 posts)And they would be using that as a bludgeon to muddy the waters.