serious question about voter fraud
ok, after the 2020 election, the media talking point response to trump's ridiculous claims was:
"[fill in official, judge or organization] found no evidence of widespread fraud or irregularities that could have changed the outcome of the election"
and that's it. the part that sounds a bit strange is the "widespread" part, meaning there was evidence of fraud (obviously election fraud exists), just not widespread fraud. ok, that's all fine. but, the way the media frames this, because it's always the response to trump's claims of fraud by the democratic party and its "never trump" allies in the GOP, it makes it sound like the fraud that was uncovered was all for biden and against trump. but, most, if not all, of the instances of fraud that we did see reported in the media came from Trump voters. why didn't (or doesn't) the media dig deeper into that and show the ratio of trump voter fraud to biden voter fraud in 2020 so that we can see where the major evidence points?
here's why it's all disturbing to me:
1. trump and trump allies continuously claim there was voter fraud that changed the election in enough states in favor of biden, giving him the electoral win by stealing it from trump.
2. media responds with the general "no evidence of widespread voter fraud that could have changed the outcome..."
3. GOP says, "oh, see, even they admit the democrats cheated, so we need to fix that" and begins to enact laws that are geared to suppress the votes of people of color and other, mainly democratic voting groups.
my guess is that if they investigated all the fraud, they would find, at worst, it was evenly split between parties but, more likely, it tended to be more on the GOP side, and the dems could make the case that the GOP is ignoring their own fraud and using their BS as an excuse to make it harder for non-GOP voters to vote.
help me out to understand what's going on here.
= new reply since forum marked as read
