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mahatmakanejeeves

(57,489 posts)
Tue Apr 9, 2019, 09:37 AM Apr 2019

Is a wizard liable for civil litigation, having failed to turn a man sufficiently invisible?

I suppose I should check to see in which state this occurred.

ThreeMexicanPopehats Retweeted

Is the wizard liable for civil litigation, having failed to turn the man sufficiently invisible? @Popehat @renato_mariotti


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Is a wizard liable for civil litigation, having failed to turn a man sufficiently invisible? (Original Post) mahatmakanejeeves Apr 2019 OP
Well, the man paid for a service that the wizard did not deliver. DetlefK Apr 2019 #1
This leads to several follow up questions ProudLib72 Apr 2019 #2
Did he have a contract that the wizard guaranteed he woud be invisable? If not, buyer beware :) patricia92243 Apr 2019 #3
And just how are they going to prove that the wizard didn't make the guy invisible? The ... SWBTATTReg Apr 2019 #4

ProudLib72

(17,984 posts)
2. This leads to several follow up questions
Tue Apr 9, 2019, 11:16 AM
Apr 2019

1. If the man needed to rob a bank to get money, how did he manage to come up with the $500 to pay the wizard?

2. Where did the man find a wizard who could cast the spell?

3. Did the man not pass any reflective surfaces on the way to rob the bank?

SWBTATTReg

(22,133 posts)
4. And just how are they going to prove that the wizard didn't make the guy invisible? The ...
Tue Apr 9, 2019, 01:05 PM
Apr 2019

wizard for all we know could have turned 1/100th of the cells visible to us invisible and of course we couldn't tell the difference. Did the contract include what level of invisibility was to be accomplished?

Crazy. The guy's picture above is enough to make one disappear though...

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