It is an example of 'eisogesis' rather than 'exogesis'. In the former you have a particular point of view that you are taking from your context and looking in the Old or New Testament for what appears to be a relevent reference.
Exogesis is where you study the book, its context, likely audience, literary construct, redaction context, changes in early forms of the text by scribes and so on. For example something might appear in a gospel and seem important by looking at a single passage but when seen in the context of where it was put its importance is less than originally apparent.
Your question of the existence of 'hell' for example is a perfect example of this.
You can find the word 'hell' or 'hades' in the Old Testament and New Testament.
So people from the 21st century have a preconceived idea what that meant and when they see it in the Bible assume that it confirms the impression that they already had (hence 'eisogesis' meaning 'reading into').
The further you go back in Scripture the less it is a place for the soul and the more it is simply the word for 'grave' or 'graveyard'.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hades_in_ChristianityHades in the Old Testament
In the Septuagint (the ancient translation of the Old Testament into Greek), the Greek term "ᾅδης" (Hades) is used to translate the Hebrew term "שׁאול" (Sheol) in, for example, Isaiah 38:18.<1> This use refers the term hades to the abode of the dead in general, rather than the abode of the wicked.
Hades in the Intertestamental Period
See entry for Sheol concerning use of Hades in Second Temple Judaism, and in the Christian Intertestamental period, such as Apocrypha, Pseudepigrapha, Dead Sea Scrolls, and also Hellenistic Jewish authors such as Josephus and Philo.
Hades in the New Testament
Thus too, in New Testament Greek, the Hebrew phrase "לא־תעזב נפשׁי לשׁאול" (you will not abandon my soul to Sheol) in Psalm 16:10 is quoted in Acts 2:27 as "οὐκ ἐγκαταλείψεις τὴν ψυχήν μου εἰς ᾅδου" (you will not abandon my soul to Hades).
In the textus receptus version of the New Testament, on which the English King James Version is based, the word "ᾅδης" (Hades), appears 11 times;<2> but critical editions of the text of 1 Corinthians 15:55 have "θάνατος" (death) in place of "ᾅδης".<3> While the King James Version translated "ᾅδης" as "hell", except in this very verse of 1 Corinthians, where it uses "grave", modern translations, for which, of course, there are only 10 instances of the word "ᾅδης" in the New Testament, generally simply transliterate the word, as "Hades".
The real answer to your question is "No" because your asking if writings 2 mellenia ago contained nouns that reflect 21st century understandings of what was written then.
The words used then reflected understandings of that age and unless you go back and unravel what has been added since then one is simply playing a word game trying to get an ancient document to confirm or repudiate a modern concept.
This is why fundamentalists don't just sound crazy but actually practice terrible biblical scholarship.