Did ancient Israel influence the Roman Empire

[Boojatta]

(such as by influencing the religion of the Roman Empire) and thus in some sense conquer the Roman Empire using immoral (i.e. non-violent) methods?

It seems to be agreed that no small country like the Jewish state that was established in 1948 conquered the Russian Empire. However, did Jews who became part of the expanding Russian Empire deliberately use immoral (i.e. non-violent) methods to influence the Russian Empire?