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Reply #1: Nitpick: In the Bible, the word "slave" does not equal "African or of African descent." [View All]

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No Elephants Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jul-09-12 08:11 AM
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1. Nitpick: In the Bible, the word "slave" does not equal "African or of African descent."
Edited on Mon Jul-09-12 08:16 AM by No Elephants
Yes, the Bible spoke of slavery as thought it were a matter of fact matter, which it was at that time in the Middle East and Greece, etc.

But, most of the slaves mentioned in the Bible were Middle Eastern, or their origin was not mentioned at all and they were probably Middle Eastern or Greek or Turkish (Greek and Turkey then both seeming to me much more like Middle Eastern nations than like European nations, but what do I know?)

But, yes, Dyson is correct that casual mention of slaves in the Bible was used to justify slavery in the U.S. and the vast majority of slaves in the U.S. at that time were African American or of African American descent. And, yes, the very few, brief references in the Bible to homosexuality are being used to justify bigotry against gays, which is comparable to using the Bible to justify slavery.

Moreover, the translation of those very few and very brief references from the original Hebrew is questionable. (Not that it matters.) (The most extended discussion is in the Sodom and Gomorrah story--which involves Lot offering his young, unmarried daughters up for gang banging by a lustful crowd intent on raping angels (who supposedly have no sexual orientation or gender, anyway). I would not draw too many lessons for 2012 from that!!

Besides, so-called Christians cannot justify bigotry of any kind by using the Bible. For just one of many things, nowhere in the Bible does God require Christians to shun members of the GLBT community.

To the contrary, much in the Bible admonishes us to love our fellow imperfect humans and to work on improving ourselves--and only ourselves-- and leave to God--and only God--judgment of other people.

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