Does anyone else find it difficult to keep these straight? Here's what I think I know: DOMA was passed in the 90's and, among other things, it says that states have the final say on whether to acknowledge marriages legalized in other states. FMA is the one that just failed, and it was to add an amendment defining marriage as between a man and a woman. MPA is the one they are trying to pass now.
MPA has been described as giving "states final say over recognizing same-sex unions sanctioned elsewhere." But isn't that what DOMA already does? In the same article (
http://apnews1.iwon.com//article/20040722/D83VTHEG0.html?PG=home&SEC=news), it says, "The legislation would strip the Supreme Court and other federal courts of their jurisdiction to rule on challenges to state bans on gay marriages under a provision of a 1996 federal law that defines marriage as between a man and a woman." Is the 1996 law they are referring to DOMA? So it sounds like what MPA does is say that DOMA can never be challenged on Constitutional grounds. It sounds like trying to do an end run around the Constitution. How can Congress pass a law making another law immune from judicial challenges? I'm not a lawyer, so please help me out here. Am I totally misunderstanding this?
:shrug: