http://www.jonchristianryter.com/2004/061304.htmAnyone have access to an OED? I bet "he" and "him" have been used generically for centuries, so, at best, this idiot could perhaps make the claim that we really don't know what the Founding Fathers intended.
From the American Heritage Dictionary:
http://www.bartleby.com/61/75/H0097500.htmlTraditionally the pronouns he, him, and his have been used as generic or gender-neutral singular pronouns, as in A novelist should write about what he knows best and No one seems to take any pride in his work anymore. Since the early 20th century, however, this usage has come under increasing criticism for reflecting and perpetuating gender stereotyping.
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But in fact the English masculine form is an odd choice when it refers to a female member of such a group. There is something plainly disconcerting about sentences such as Each of the stars of As Good As It Gets
won an Academy Award for his performance. In this case, the use of his forces the reader to envision a single male who stands as the representative member of the group, a picture that is at odds with the image that comes to mind when we picture the stars of As Good As It Gets. Thus he is not really a gender-neutral pronoun; rather, it refers to a male who is to be taken as the representative member of the group referred to by its antecedent. The traditional usage, then, is not simply a grammatical convention; it also suggests a particular pattern of thought.
So, I think, one could argue that the Founding Fathers may have assumed their leader would be male, based on their world view (female monarchs are a red herring -- queens were a matter of lack of male heirs; an older daughter will get passed up for a younger son in the line to the throne in most monarchies, past and present), but the use of the masculine pronoun doesn't actually imply a requirement that the leader would be male.