Saturday, August 04, 2007
Marty Lederman
As noted below, the key to understanding the FISA bill is that it will categorically exclude from FISA's requirements any and all "surveillance
directed at a person reasonably believed to be located outside of the United States," even if the surveillance occurs in the U.S.; even if the surveillance has nothing whatsoever to do with Al Qaeda, terrorism or crime; and, most importantly, even if the surveillance picks up communications of U.S. persons here in the States.
So, two questions:
1. Doesn't this give the NSA all it had under the "TSP" between March 2004 and January 2007 -- and much, much more, since there's no requirement of any tie to an Al-Qaeda-related person? If so, and if they could get this sort of a deal from a
Democratic-controlled Congress, what does that say about their unwillingness to go to a Republican-led Congress for those four years to seek a similar legislative fix, and to violate FISA unilaterally and in secret on the basis of a threadbare AUMF/Article II rationale? Is there any excuse now for their not having invoked the ordinary constitutional processes?
2. The amendment means, I think, that as far as statutory law is concerned, all of our international phone calls and e-mails can be surveilled, without exception, as long as the surveillance is in some sense "directed at" a person overseas. As
I asked yesterday, is that OK from a Fourth Amendment perspective?
Secret ruling limited spying efforts (second item at link)
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