The Backlash Cometh
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Wed Feb-03-10 07:49 PM
Original message |
If a bank forecloses on a house, |
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Why would they list the Homeowner's Association as a co-defendant? Is it because the unpaid Association fees are part of the lien?
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Fresh_Start
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Wed Feb-03-10 07:56 PM
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1. there may also be assessments |
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from the Association for example common facilities or improvements like street lighting
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virgogal
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Wed Feb-03-10 08:02 PM
Response to Original message |
2. In MA the Homeowners Assoc. or Condo Assoc. gets the money owed to |
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them before the bank gets anything when it sells the property.
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guruoo
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Wed Feb-03-10 08:23 PM
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4. If so, then they would be a plaintiff, rather than a defendant |
virgogal
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Wed Feb-03-10 09:05 PM
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5. Gotcha! Obviously my legal knowledge is minimal. |
guruoo
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Wed Feb-03-10 08:21 PM
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3. In this case, 'co-defendant' would mean the bank is suing them too |
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Edited on Wed Feb-03-10 08:26 PM by guruoo
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The Backlash Cometh
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Wed Feb-03-10 09:28 PM
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guruoo
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Thu Feb-04-10 01:15 AM
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yodoobo
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Wed Feb-03-10 09:33 PM
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7. They sue everyone who has an interest in the property |
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including any utilities that might hold an easement.
HOA's have an interest because they have yearly revenue.
I think it has to do with making sure that any claims the HOA has on the property become secondary to the banks claims.
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DU
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Sun May 05th 2024, 11:12 PM
Response to Original message |