RC
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Sat Oct-01-05 09:15 AM
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Edited on Sat Oct-01-05 09:26 AM by RC
AMENDMENT XV
Passed by Congress February 26, 1869. Ratified February 3, 1870.
Section 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude--
Section 2. The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
So how does this not apply to States the do not let convicted felons vote. In some states even after they have completed their sentences? Is not serving a prison sentence a condition of servitude to the government?
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mikehiggins
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Sat Oct-01-05 09:17 AM
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servitude in this context refers to whether or not someone was born free or a slave. It has nothing to do with criminal law.
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RC
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Sat Oct-01-05 09:26 AM
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2. But it does not say, nor imply that. |
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Edited on Sat Oct-01-05 09:26 AM by RC
It just states "...or previous condition of servitude." It seems to me to have quite some leeway in the meaning, regardless of the framers intent. For instance, look at how the framers intent has been distorted in -
Amendment II
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
Militia? What militia?
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hootinholler
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Sat Oct-01-05 10:03 AM
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For one, is an official mailitia in current context, which is why they get tanks and machine guns, etc. In the Framer's context, all the citizenry was the militia.
-Hoot
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Burning Water
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Sat Oct-01-05 10:36 AM
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Edited on Sat Oct-01-05 10:41 AM by Burning Water
was passed to ensure that just because a fellow was a slave before the Civil War didn't mean his rights could NOW be abrogated. This is considerably different from being a convicted felon, which, yes, does involve a "condition of servitude", but also consists of so much more.
However, there are undoubtedly reasons why released murderers, rapists, embezzlers, etc. should be allowed to vote. This is a debate that the country should, and must, have. But this amendment does not apply. That is, there are other factors in play besides the servitude condition.
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Yupster
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Sat Oct-01-05 11:28 AM
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This amendment was passed for a very specific purpose and must be seen together with the two amendments that came before it.
The Thirteenth Amendment freed the slaves.
The Fourteenth Amendment made freed slaves citizens of the states they reside in.
The Fifteenth Amendment gave freed slaves (males) the right to vote.
That's what the amendments were passed for regardless of what lawyers use them to justify today.
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Sat May 11th 2024, 07:13 AM
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