Reply #51: actually a good question [View All]

[iverglas]

The person who uses deadly force (not necessarily a firearm) need only bring themselves within the presumption -- that they had a reasonable fear of imminent peril of death or great bodily harm -- to benefit from the effects of it.

That is, they need only show that they knew or had reason to believe that an unlawful and forcible entry or unlawful and forcible act was occurring or had occurred.

If the other person is dead, what is there to refute such an assertion? In some circumstances, it might be quite possible to get away with the lie.